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God make the holiest man of all to be the greatest sufferer of all the ages? This heart broken by the forsaking of the Father means more than martyrdom. If Christ?s death is not propitiatory, it fills me with terror and despair for it presents me not only with a very imperfect example in Christ but also with a proof of measureless injustice on the part of God.

<422328> Luke 23:28 ? ?weep not for me, but weep for yourselves? = Jesus rejects all pity that forgets his suffering for others.

To the above view of Scroud, Westcott objects that blood does not readily flow from an ordinary corpse. The separation of the red corpuscles of the blood from the serum, or water, would be the beginning of decomposition and would be inconsistent with the statement in <440231>Acts 2:31 ? ?neither did his flesh see corruption.? But Dr. W. W. Keen of Philadelphia, in his article on The Bloody Sweat of our Lord (Bibliotheca Sacra, July, 1897:469-484) endorses Stroud?s view as to the physical cause of our Lord?s death. Christ?s being forsaken by the Father was only the culmination of that relative withdrawal which constituted the source of Christ?s loneliness through life. Through life he was a servant of the Spirit. On the cross the Spirit left him to the weakness of unassisted humanity, destitute of conscious divine resources. Compare the curious reading of <580209>Hebrews 2:9 ? ?that he apart from God cwri~v Qeo~n should taste death for every man.?

If Christ merely supposed himself to be deserted by God, ?not only does Christ become an erring man, and, so far as the predicate deity is applicable to him, an erring God. But, if he cherished unfounded distrust of God, how can it be possible still to maintain that his will was in abiding, perfect agreement and identity with the will of God?? See Kant, Lotze, and Ritschl, by Stahlin, 219. Charles C. Everett, Gospel of Paul, says Jesus was not crucified because he was accursed but he was accursed because he was crucified, so that, in wreaking vengeance upon him, Jewish law abrogated itself. This interpretation however contradicts

<470521> 2 Corinthians 5:21 ? ?Him who knew no sin he made to be sin on our behalf? ? where the divine identification of Christ with the race of sinners antedates and explains his sufferings. <430129>John 1:29 ? ?the Lamb of God, that taketh away the sin of the world? ? does not refer to Jesus as a lamb for gentleness but rather as a lamb for sacrifice. Maclaren: ?How does Christ?s death prove God?s love? Only on one supposition, namely, that Christ is the incarnate Son of God, sent by the Father?s love and being his express image? and, we may add, suffering vicariously for us and removing the obstacle in God?s mind to our pardon.

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