Some have said that the reason all the Pharisees left the temple was that they themselves were among those guilty of committing adultery with the harlot. The text viewed from the natural does not support this, but viewed as types it does.
If this scene represents Satan accusing the church of spiritual adultery, isn't he the other guilty party? We have seen that the Law requires that there be two guilty parties and that both be put to death. So cannot the Lord reply 'well tell me Satan, just who is the other guilty party? Exactly who have my people been unfaithful with?' So the effect here is to illustrate yet another scripture: as it says in Psalm 64:8 "So they shall make their own tongue to fall upon themselves "
The relationship between God and his people (Israel and/or Church) is one of betrothal of marriage. They are legally married but not yet fully united. One thing this accomplishes is to protect them, to a degree, from the accuser when they are unfaithful. Since the accuser is the other guilty party in the adultery. So to bring the full accusation of adultery against them would rebound against the accuser as well. The other thing is that eventually the church must be willing to accept the sentence of death. Ps. 110:3 "Thy people shall be willing in the day of thy power " And in that day the Lord will use it to destroy the enemy!
Now to summarize:
Colossians 2:13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
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