By Bill Somers

Hell Really Exists

Hell Really Exists

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"Which of you convinceth me of sin? And if I say the truth, why do ye not believe me?" (John 8:46)

The Jews of Jesus day rejected him as messiah. One of their usual arguments was that He was a sinner. And since he was a sinner, he could not be messiah! One who is a law breaker cannot possibly be the one who fulfils the law.

We see throughout the gospels where they constantly tried to accuse him of any number of things. He is mad, he is a drunkard, a friend of sinners, he breaks the traditions, he violates the Sabbath, he has a devil, he doesn't pay taxes, he wants to overthrow the law, he was born in fornication, he contradicts the writings of Moses, etc, etc. And did you see what happened when he went into the temple?

Unbelieving Jews of today still use this tactic. I came across it while following an online discussion group several years ago. This group included Christians, Orthodox and Messianic Jews debating various bible topics. Among them was, naturally, Isaiah 53, commonly considered a proof text of Jesus' messiah ship. The Orthodox Jews were going to great lengths to find alternate interpretations of Isaiah 53 or to argue that it did not refer to Jesus.

One writer made issue of Isaiah 53 verse 8b, " and who shall declare his generation? For he was cut off out of the land of the living: ... " And then making reference to Genesis 1:28 "

And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living thing that moveth upon the earth (Genesis 1:28)

The line of thinking went like this. If Isaiah 53 refers to Jesus, as Christians claim, it refers to his death in verse 8 by saying "he was cut off out of the land of the living". And it alludes to the fact that he died without having any offspring by saying "Who shall declare his generation?" That is to day, he died without any children, so no one can declare his generation since he had no descendants.

So how could Jesus have been sinless and have fulfilled the law when he failed to obey the very first commandment, given in Genesis 1:28, to be fruitful and multiply?

So what's wrong with this kind of argument? Primarily that it is overly literal and superficial in its rejection of the truth of scripture. [The entire gist if the re-interpretation of Isaiah 53, however is very allegorical. Is essence they claim the suffering servant of Isaiah 53 is not Jesus but Israel itself.]

Let's look at two points. Who shall declare his generation? And did Jesus obey Genesis 1:28? Did Jesus obey Genesis 1:28?

Genesis 1:28 is a commandment given to Adam. It consists of two parts. A. "Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it" and B. have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living thing that moveth upon the earth."

We know that Adam failed to carryout part B and though he was fruitful and multiplied and replenished the earth, he did not subdue it. Instead he yielded dominion to satan.

Now the bible tells that Jesus was the second Adam. This commandment is then one that must be fulfilled as part of his mission.

And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit. Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual. The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven. (1 Corinthians 15:45-47)

The last or second man Adam is Jesus. Now does Jesus have dominion over all? Of course He does. He obtained it by being fully obedient to the Father and suffering death on the cross. We read in Matthew:

And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. (Matthew 28:18)

And in Acts we read:

For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,

Until I make thy foes thy footstool.

Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ. (Acts 2:34-36)

I think that takes care of the question of dominion. To answer the first part we must consider the next question.

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